Theory doubt

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Theory doubt

I have a doubt people i hope you can explain to me, here we go:
For example, our opponent bets 1P on the flop so we have to defend more or less 50% of our range, when an opponent bets 1P we have to put 1P to win 3P so we need at least 33% equity against his betting range, but if we have to defend at least 50% of our range to not being exploitable folding to much perhaps we need hands with less than 33% equity, do you understand what i mean?
Sorry if my english is not very good, thank you.

52 Comments

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Will Winaton 9 years, 5 months ago

There have been some questions just like this nowadays. I think you can still find those threads.
We don't need to defend minusEV hands for the sake of not folding more than X%, our goal should be to play every hand the best way possible. Also, equity is not the primary thing that should be considered with borderline hands. There are hands with 25% equity which will make more money than hands with 40% in some situations. So what matters is how much of our EQ we can realize with a hand.

Disharmonist 9 years, 5 months ago

Better call with J high and a gutter OTF than with bottom pair, no backdoors, which has 70% EQ against villains actual hand and has a hard time playing turns and rivers.

Disharmonist 9 years, 5 months ago

The nice thing about OTF folding is, villain doesnt know what we fold. So in this case he doesnt learn too much about our play and activly exploit us.

Deactivated User 9 years, 5 months ago

Thank you for the answer,i understand what you are talking about realization of equity but imagine the same question in the river, where equitys are polarized, what can we do if we have to defend hands with less than 33% equity in order to not being exploitable?

Will Winaton 9 years, 5 months ago

There is no such thing that we need to. I mean if we're on the river, and have less than the equity needed to make the call, that means our opponent is exploitable by betting valueheavily and we should be exploiting him by overfolding with the hands that has a negative EV as calls/raises.

In a GTO situation our opponent would make our borderline hands indifferent which means we have the 33% EQ against his potsize bet with our bluffcatchers, unless it is some extremely rare situation, so in this case we should be defending 50% of our range.
If you know defending borderline hands is negative EV OTF in a spot vs potsize bet, that likely means his potbetting range is exploitable so we should exploit him again.

schifty1 9 years, 5 months ago

its my understanding (and basically what Will said) that when we don't know what our opponent is doing we can try to defend 1-A to make him indifferent with his bluffs.

if we suspect he is underbluffing then we exploit him by overfolding.
if he's overbluffing then we exploit him by bluffcatching a ton.

in the situation where he is underbluffing, we only need to defend hands that we suspect can realize x% eq, where x is our pot odds.

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

There is no way to translate EQ into EV - pre river. You can easily create a scenario where you have a hand with 60% equity on the flop and still can't call a psb. ;)

Above that - listen to Will, he nailed it.

twinskat 9 years, 5 months ago

If I was taking a stab at 'what you meant' here, BF...

You are proposing that there is NOT a direct correlation between EQ and EV 'until' the river.

So, yeah there are all sorts of factors to consider, and certainly EQ and EV are 'related' pre flop, flop and Turn, but until the River, there will not be a a way to look at a pure number for EQ and somehow get to EV for the hand. ???

which

schifty1 9 years, 5 months ago

i don't understand what you're getting at w/, "no way to translate EQ into EV - pre river."

consider a situation where we defend from the bb, check the flop and face a bet.

i think the better our backdoor draws are (gutters/straight draws/flush draws to the nuts v non-nut draws) the more eq we can expect to realize. hands in this category may have less eq on the flop than some hands that do a shitty job of realizing eq because there are so few turn/river combos on which they can profitably call another bet.

also, if we have some sort of bluff catcher, the better our hand is at blocking his value region and not blocking his bluffs the more eq we can expect to realize. hands in this category just have more eq in general than other candidates to defend and make for reasonable calling hands on future streets because of their blockers/unblockers.

these seem fairly obvious and useful and I'm often considering R (equity realization) issues when playing. it looks to me like you're making an argument that some of these considerations are useless. seems more likely that i just don't understand what you're trying to say. help a brotha out.

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

Yeah, the realized equity is exactly what I was referring to.

Imagine a situation where you have a pure bluffcatcher on the flop with no equity to improve on later streets whatsoever. Your opponent has a totally polarized range, 100% equity / 0% equity. There is $100 in the pot and remaining stacks are $1,300. He bets $100. You calculated that your bluffcatcher has 60% equity against the betting-range of Villain.

What are you doing?

oblioo 9 years, 5 months ago

What are you doing?

Obviously callling down...

You can easily create a scenario where you have a hand with 60% equity
on the flop and still can't call a psb. ;)

What? Do you mean 60% equity vs. villain's range? Could you provide us with an example of what you're talking about?

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

Flop is 2h 2c 2s. $100 pot, eff. stacks 1.3k. I bet pot. My betting range is A2, T9. You have TT and 65% equity.

What's your plan now?

Will Winaton 9 years, 5 months ago

Because you're OTF, and he will put all his money in by the river. In this case we're better off overfolding flop(100%), it's the gto play I guess.

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

That's the point. No mixed strat. Mixed strats will be taken if call and fold would have equal EV, but in this case, calling clearly has a negative EV, where folding has 0EV.

oblioo: Just as an exercise, try to put up an EV formula for the given scenario. Take pen and paper and count all combos that I can have. Then write down all combos that I will bet the turn and the river with and calculate your EVs, for call river - call turn - and finally for call flop. Then you will get the right answer.

By the way, there even is a shortcut to prove that folding is the right answer, but it doesn't help you if you just get "convinced", you (or anybody else who struggles with the answer) will learn it better when you get it yourself. I will give the shortcut later on.

oblioo 9 years, 5 months ago

Folding flop is easily exploitable by villain simply widening his bluffing range. Seems like we should always call flop and then play mixed on the river and/or turn if villain is balanced there. Could one of you provide a math proof for what you're trying to prove?

You are also making a case for increasing fold equity by decreasing bet size, which seems... unique. In this situation obviously you would call a shove on the flop, and I'm sure you would call a 5% potsize bet on the flop, so what range of betsizes are you folding vs. and why?

oblioo 9 years, 5 months ago

BigFiszh, I don't think betting 100% pot into a $100 pot with 1.3k stacks with a perfectly polarized range with no chance of equities changing on later streets is the right play. I also doubt it's the right play to have 12 bluff combos for your 4 value combos on the flop. And finally, I can't do your example without you telling me what bet size villain uses on turn (presumably river is all-in).

That said, I am open to your suggestion so if you could provide some proof I'd appreciate it.

Will Winaton 9 years, 5 months ago

I think BigFiszh's example is a toygame where vill can't bluff more.
Although I think if villain has a wider starting range, but his betrange is exclusively A2, and T9 then he's being exploitable, and still our best response vs that strategy is to fold 100% of our TT. The later streets decide what size we can call in my opinion.
In this case villain can make our turn and river call 0EV easily(which means we lose exactly our flopcall), and he won't check enough/we won't make enough money when he checks with his giveups, to make up for it.

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

Folding flop is easily exploitable by villain simply widening his bluffing range.

We are talking about a "hypothetical" situation. I gave you defined ranges and told you that each player exactly knows the range of his opponent. Player A - with A2, T9 - has 4x nuts and 8x bluffs. He tells his opponent (of whom he knows that he has TT) that he will bet the pot with his entire range. There's no room for "exploits" once his Player B folds, as A has no more combos to bet with. Player B knows Player A's range as well. So there's no guessing game ... everything is laid out. And now the question was - "What should Player B do?".

Could one of you provide a math proof for what you're trying to prove?

I could, but I am a "strong teacher", nothing comes easy. ;-)

You are also making a case for increasing fold equity by decreasing bet size, which seems... unique.

The reason why we are doing this is EXACTLY the answer to this "unique point". So, it might look unique if you are not aware of this concept, but at the end, it's pure math.

BigFiszh, I don't think betting 100% pot into a $100 pot with 1.3k stacks with a perfectly polarized range with no chance of equities changing on later streets is the right play.

It is.

I also doubt it's the right play to have 12 bluff combos for your 4 value combos on the flop.

We don't have 12 bluff combos, we only have 8.

And finally, I can't do your example without you telling me what bet size villain uses on turn (presumably river is all-in).

Pot sized on any street.

oblioo 9 years, 5 months ago

Interesting, thanks for the discussion. My bad on the 12 vs 8 combos, and I see your point now, was having a theory fog moment :)

Mike76 9 years, 5 months ago

Regarding BigFiszh's example, I made a CREV sim to understand it and to understand how many bluffs were needed. Like it has been said, 8 bluffs isn't enough to make EV(call) = 0, you need 9.5 on the flop. I added 98s (4 combos) and I applied 37.5% of bets with those, for 1.5 combos, which totals 9.5 with the T9 combos.

It gives us a perfect nuts/air scenario.

Regarding how to find out how many bluffs are needed for turn/flop (someone said that he had trouble with that), you just calculate the bluffs you have on the river and add them to your river value bets and that gives you your turn "value bets".

So in this case, we bet river with 4 value hands and 2 bluffs, so we take those 6 combos for the turn and add 3 bluffs, for a total of 9 combos. For the flop, we then take those 9 combos and add 4.5 to maintain that 2:1 ratio and we now have 13.5 total combos, 4 real value (that are the nuts on the river) and 9.5 bluffs.

A good explanation is given for that in Steve Paul's video on Bluff : Value ratios

Sauce123 9 years, 5 months ago

Equity correlates strongly but doesn't cause EV. So when you're confused, it's reasonable to call top X% sorted by equity. However, in the large number of cases where EV and equity diverge, this heuristic will fail you.

sweet16 9 years, 5 months ago

You should think about what being exploitable means, and what he can do to you. Haven't read any of the comments so ppl might have said this

PepeLePew 9 years, 5 months ago

Reverse engineering from river and assuming Villain is barreling us with GTO frequency on every street (or attempting to) we need to demonstrate one of two things;

-accounting for indifference, villain's air should have EV = 0. So if his value has flop EV > 300 then we are better off always folding
-villain needs > 8 combos of air to make us indifferent with a pot size on the flop, which immediately makes our optimal strategy to just always fold.

I reverse engineered from river to turn (by which I mean did some very easy algebra with some difficulty) and found that villain is barreling 2 combos of T9 on river (fairly obvious) and 5 on turn (less obvious) in order to make our bluffcatcher indifferent and calling him 1/2 the time. At that point I got a bit lost and couldn't manage to go from turn to flop. Any tips? Is it very similar to the first step?

Not posting my work because it's fairly (needlesly) lengthy and messy but I got following EVs on the turn:

Assuming villain gets there with 8xT9 and 4xA2, we should have:

EV(air) = 0 according to indifference
EV(nuts) = 3001/2 (they fold turn) + 6001/4 (they call turn and fold river)
+ 1500*1/4 (they call turn and call river)
= 675

Overall Bettor's EV is thus:

EV = 2/3(0) + 1/3 x 675 = 225

Being a zero sum game, Caller's EV is 75.

Any tips on going from turn to flop? I feel a bit out of my depth figuring out the Bettor GTO value/bluff range on flop knowing the optimal turn range.

After some trouble, I get to 2/6 river bluffs, 5/9 turn bluffs and 19/27 flop bluffs. Considering villain gets to flop with 2/3 aka 18/27 bluffs, we should fold since his value range is >1/3 of his possible betting range. Therefore villain just bets pot with range and expects to always win 100. He does better if we don't fold. Do those numbers seem correct?

singdean 9 years, 5 months ago

I wonder if taking peibol's scenario to an extreme will help clarify the situation:

What if even the very best hand in your defending range has less than 33% equity? Will you still try to call with 50% of your range just to be unexploitable? No. I believe you will fold all hands and just walk away from the game.

What if you have 100 hands in your defending range, and only the very best hand has >33% equity, while the rest have have <33% equity (hence calling with them makes it -EV)? Again, I believe that defending with 50% can't be a Nash equilibrium, since you can always unilaterally improve your situation by folding, which is 0 EV.

Since calling with a hand that has less than 33% equity is -EV, and that you can always improve your situation unilaterally by folding such a hand, that should mean that your worse bluff-catcher in your defending range should have at least 33% equity. Hence those hands with less than 33% equity should not be considered bluff-catchers, and should not be in your defending range.

PepeLePew 9 years, 5 months ago

Thanks, though really I didn't post how I got to those numbers.

@ bigfizsh: is the shortcut you're referring to, assuming 'b' the bluffing region of our flop betting range and 'v' our value betting portion on river and same size on every street, the following?

b = 1-v^3

In our example, that would give us:

b = 1-(2/3)^3
b = 1-8/27
b = 19/27

Had some trouble getting to this and probably the generalization only works if we bet the same on every street. For different sizings I guess we have to do reverse induction from river to flop to figure out the optimal contination frequency from one street to the next?

BTW, I found an interesting take away from these calculations is proof of a game theory consequence. Assuming we have a strict bluff catcher vs strict drawing dead air / unbeatable nuts situation, then the bluff catchers we continue with are 0EV on every decision point of the game tree. When reverse inducing though, it's clear that considering that getting to a future 0EV calling/folding spot costs a bet on the present street, then we have to be compensated for the investment. That compensation comes exclusively from villain checking the optimal part of his air to us, making that bet we called neutral. So essentially, as pointed out earlier ITT, we are exclusively dependant on villain having enough bluffs in his range that he has to give up with. If he doesn't then we are paying a premium on one street for the opportunity to flip for neutral EV on a future street, which is obviously always -EV.

I just thought it was interesting to stumble upon mathematical proof of this by hand. I'm sure it's obvious to anyone who's been less lazy than I in their study of game theory :) Just one little toy game and we get to special identities of flop frequencies WRT sizings, proof of the compounding bluffs effect and also a very clear illustration of why early street equities are far from the whole picture. I learned/confirmed a lot from the homework assignment so thanks to bigfizsh as well as OP for starting the thread :)

singdean 9 years, 5 months ago

Pepe, such an interesting point you highlighted about the compensation for our call this street coming from the air-hands that villain gives up on the next street.

It does seem like the flop call of -$100 is compensated by the 1/3 time villain goes check-turn&check-river (1/3X$300 = +$100), and the turn call of -$300 compensated by the 1/3 time villain goes check on the river (1/3X$900 = +$300), hence making every node 0 EV for the caller if both parties are playing GTO. A salient point not being mentioned at all in MOP , if I recall correctly.

Going back to Peibol's question, that means hero can defend with hands that have less than 33% equity on the flop if he believes that villain has more-than-optimal number of bluffing hands which he will give up on future streets. However, wouldn't that be indirectly saying villain's flop betting range is unbalanced with too much bluffing hands in it?

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

Yeah, you got it!!

That's exactly the point I wanted to show. Once Villain bets every street with GTO frequency (balanced with 100%/0% hands) and x/f the appropriate airpart of his range on any street, a hand with 90% equity on the flop is as good as a hand with 10% (from our perspective) - as we ONLY win $$ once Villain gives up his air on later streets.

Well done, Pepe!

DirtyD 9 years, 5 months ago

This is a fascinating point that's been discussed a lot, but it depends on the aggressor having a completely polarized range/defender having a completely bluffcatching range (no "traps" or nuts in defender's range). It seems to me this makes it tricky to apply to the majority of actual poker situations.

Steve Paul 9 years, 5 months ago

not sure what come on means, so I'll explain my comment just in case...if villain bets a range of nuts/air and we have all hands that are in between, then all of our hands have the same equity. So to say a hand with 90% equity is "as good as a hand" with 10% equity seems very confusing to me. Possibly just me though.

BigFiszh 9 years, 5 months ago

Ah ... okay, I see. First of all, I was not talking about a range that has 90% + 10% hands combined, but one single hand (or the total range) that either has 90% or 10%, ant that it doesn't matter.

But obviously this is just a theoretical "toy-game", we are talking about abstract numbers, that are consciously exaggerated to pinpoint the concept - knowing that a situation like that in real poker games would not be possible.

singdean 9 years, 5 months ago

but it does matter, Bigfiszh, on second thought.

In such toy game, saying that you have 90% equity on the flop is synonymous with saying that you are losing to 10% pure nuts and beating 90% dead hands. Likewise. saying you have 10% equity means you are losing to 90% pure nuts and beating 10% dead hands.

So when villain has exact optimal number of bluffing hands in his beginning range, say 19/27 or 70%, you will have 70% equity for all your bluff-catchers, and you can call optimally till the river and break-even at 0 EV. But when he has fewer than optimal, say 18/27 or 66%, you will have 66% equity, and defending with your bluff-catchers will be -EV. So you will have to fold on the flop immediately. Which means

having enough equity against his pure nuts&dead hands
= villain having enough bluffs in his beginning range
= 0 EV when playing optimal defense

singdean 9 years, 5 months ago

The compounding effect of bluffing is quite astounding; you actually just need between 5 to 6 streets of geometric betting to have a beginning range of 10 value hands and 90 bluff hands

5 street betting: 1-(2/3)^5 = 87% (13% value hands, 87% bluff hands)
6 street betting: 1- (2/3)^6= 91% (9% value hands, 91% bluff hands)

PepeLePew 9 years, 5 months ago

Incidentally, 5 street bluffing would allow for 81x our flop bet on the river (assuming we pot every street). That's some pretty deep stacked toy gaming :)

Definitely interesting how three streets (or four depending on whether or not you count preflop as a street) in big bet flop games already allows for huge pots and lots of early street bluffing. I actually wonder, for those who have more experience in two street games like 5CD NL and 72SD NL, how do you feel about the balance of those games compared to NLHE or PLO?

It's kind of a thought experiment I have with myself occasionally. If we were to try to create the most strategicly balanced form of poker WRT made hands and draws, bluffing and semi-bluffing etc, what would it look like? Community cards or not, hi-lo or just one way hand strength, how many streets, what betting structure (this would have to go hand in hand with the rest of the game rules)? Obscure concept I guess, but I just always wonder which factors make a poker variant appealing or unappealing to different types of players.

MonK_Key 9 years, 5 months ago

Hi all and thanks for posting this.

With my words i would say that it will always depends of : how many direct pot odds we have addin with or without implied odds on a present decision, and how implied odds on future street could influence/compense our EVcall on the present street.

Exemple : hero has 78o vs AK (effectifs stacks 150 each) and card exposed for hero on the turn
board : A562 (pot 100) equity (8/44) = 18,18%

AK gonna always put all money on the river, 78 could fold if no draws comes up.AK PSB on the turn which gives (neutral EVcall turn would have been 100)
- EVcall-fold w/o implied odds = 300 * 18,18% + 0% x 50 = 54,54
- EVcall-call w/ implied odds = 18,18 % x 300 + 100% x 50 =104,54

So without implied odds we cant justify a call, with implied odds we are dependant how often he does gonna put the remaining stacks. In my case is 100%, too much optimist...
If vilain check/fold more than
18,18%x300 + X % x 50 = Ev neutral turn = 100
So Vilain needs to bet more than X > 90,92% with his all remaining of stacks (50) on next street to have EVcall turn w/implied odds > 0

It's different that the example that u gave. In the case of big fish we are made hands vs made hands in a perfect polarise (nuts/airs) vs bluffcatch game. In my case, we are made hands vs draws. slightly different coz made hands vs made hands have both always showdown value on river...

for this formula :
b = 1-(2/3)^n between n = 1 and n =3 It's only right with ur assumptions with GTO frequencies on each street (foldin 33%). But if ur opponent does fold less than that then u give him odds to make profitable call(float). Obviously, if Vilain call 100% on each street is better to get n = 1 (maybe 0) than n = 3 coz as u said u give him much more compensation than u should by check/fold. I think it's what we called reverse implied odds... So n must be a variable of frequencies on MDF per street.

Last point, I'm readin slowly and hardly MOP, on chapter 7 figure 7.1, it talks about it.
Bet's EV overall function of the pot size, depends of 2 functions linear,
1) K1X + C1 (avec K1 > 0) direct pot odds
2) K2X + C2 (K2 < 0) implied odds on future street

It shows how the sizebet could increase or decrease ur EVoverall :
So u can start calculate :
- the critical amount of the pot sizebet where ur EV start to decrease (when 1) = 2) X=...)
- The region of amounts where u will have 2 pot size for the same EV's
- Maximum pot size to keep EVoverall > 0

PS: with some algebra u could find K and C, of course im'not using this yet at my micro level but it helps me to understand the effect of the sizebet and implied odds

ilares 9 years, 5 months ago

don't get trapped looking for equity only and not equity+playability

for instance on HU on Ah7c2s you have a lot more equity with 55 than 8h9h but you will choose 8h9h to bet flop and a lot of turns rather than 55

from the defensor point of view, you will fold 55 on AT8r but call J9 even if 55 has more equity here vs a wide range

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