Theory doubt
Posted by Deactivated User
Posted by Deactivated User posted in Mid Stakes
Theory doubt
I have a doubt people i hope you can explain to me, here we go:
For example, our opponent bets 1P on the flop so we have to defend more or less 50% of our range, when an opponent bets 1P we have to put 1P to win 3P so we need at least 33% equity against his betting range, but if we have to defend at least 50% of our range to not being exploitable folding to much perhaps we need hands with less than 33% equity, do you understand what i mean?
Sorry if my english is not very good, thank you.
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