I don't have any particular reads on this opponent, I have only 14 samples in my HUD with a VPIP and PFR of 29 so I'm assuming a +/- standard range from a raise from the CO, meaning:
[22+, A2s+, K9s+, QTs+, J9s+, T9s, 98s, 87s, 76s, A9o+, KTo+, QJo] - 21%

On this flop, as I'm analyzing this off table now I think a better line could have been check-raising. This is because villain should be betting here with a somewhat polarized range since, although the connectedness is not enormous, it does hit my range better as I have many more 9xs, 8xs, Txs, 67s, 88 as well as any suited holding that might have called PF. By just calling I am capping my range quite a lot because I would probably be raising 9x, TT, 88 and I would be 3betting JJ+ and big broadways PF (KQs, AQo, AJs+).
I think at the time my reasoning was to try to have a cheap turn (which I realize is not that cheap by its bet sizing). The Villain as its range uncapped because he bets his Acx (although we block the clubs), he can have any overpair, 9x, JTs(o), QTs, KJ, QJ. He checks back most of his medium/low showdown value hands such as 22-77, A8.

The turn here is a card that hits my range better than his, I get there with my 66, 96, T7s, 75s and it misses most of his range. I check with the intent of check-raising (as I should probably have done on the flop), trying to kick basically every over card he has. The problem with this line VS check raising the flop is that it is much more expensive, It's much harder to bet again in the river, and I'm already with my range capped, meaning that my bets on the river, on most runouts won't be as credible. My bet sizing is probably a bit too little here as well

The overbet here was with the intent of applying maximum pressure, representing trips, a boat that I was slowplaying, or JT that completed the straight there. I won't be putting the result here because I want you guys not to be influenced by the runout.