Mike Y

Maybe not a very interesting hand. In fact, the situation comes up very often. I'm curious what would you do in this case against a regular (a balanced player). Please don't be result oriented. Thanks in advance.

This is a 200NL hand. Villain is a multi-tabling regular, doesn't play too many pots. Not much other read.

CO (198)

HJ (80)

BN (220) Villain

SB (260)

BB (180) Hero

Preflop (3): BB was dealt QsJh. CO folded, HJ folded, BN raised to 6. SB folded. BB called.

Flop (13): 7h8hJs. BB checked, BN bet 10, BB called.

Turn (33): 3c. BB checked, BN bet 26, BB called.

River (85): 2s. BB checked, BN bet 65. BB called. BN showed AcAd and took down the pot.

Would you play it differently? If yes, how?

My reasoning at that time was that I beat his missed straight draws and flush draws. However, as I read some of the members' posts, my range is "capped". If I understand it right, it means that I can't have a big hand here, such as 9T, JJ, 77, 88, AA. So if the villain knows that, he can value bet all his over pairs and TPTK. So in this case, the "standard" play should be a fold in the river?

Hi,

I'm not sure if I made the right decision here, please comment on preflop and flop play. It's a relative loose aggressive online game.

Players (sorry I don't have stats and I don't have the fine print hand history):
Villain1, CO: 70BB stack (the most frequent raiser preflop, but play hit or fold post flop. He is the target of this table.)

Villain2, BN: 160BB stack (regular, playing an exploitative style, I have seen him check call really thin in the river on scary board.)

Hero, SB: 300BB stack (tight aggressive, but probably perceived as loose aggressive, for the most recent hands, I built my stack by catching some big bluffs and by calling raises with small pocket pairs and stack my opponents off with a set. I raise preflop linearly after I was 200BB. I 3bet Villain2 a couple of times previously and villain2 folded his BN steals.)

Villain3, BB: 10BB stack (in the previous hand, called my 3 bet preflop with 78s and pushed all in on flush draw on 2s6hJs flop, flush draw got there but lost to my full house.)

Here is the action:
Preflop: UTG fold, UTG+1 fold, Villain1 raise to 3.5BB (on the higher side of his normal raises), Villain2 3bet to 12BB. Hero has QQ and 4Bet to 45BB. Villain3 snap call and all in with 10BB. Villain1 fold. Villain2 thought for 15~20 seconds (noticeably longer than his usual time) and call.

Flop (pot 103.5BB): Kc8h4s. Hero bet 35BB, Villain2 all-in for 80BB more. Hero folded.

Below is the hand result. Please think of what would you do before reading forward.

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Both Villain3 and Villain2 shows AKo. However the turn was a Q! (I guess I was frustrated and played noticeably worse afterward, stopped playing after 5 minutes. Am I the only who may have this mental issue?)

Thank you in advance,

This is the second hand after I joined the 1/2 table, so no specific reads on the villain.

Villain is utg with 180, Hero is utg+1 with 200.

Preflop: Villain limp utg, Hero raise with JsJc to 8, other players folds, and Villain reraise to 14. Hero called.

At that time, I thought limping UTG is pretty fishy and I had JJ, so it's an easy isolation/value play. What's your read if someone limp utg? If he is a fish, I think his limp/re-raise probably means a big hand like KK/AA.

Flop (31): 2c5c8c. Villain bet 15, Hero called.

I think this is standard? I have a flush draw and over pair.

Turn (61): 4h. Villain bet 40, Hero?

I think we both calling and folding have some merits. But I chose to raise all-in, because I did not want to call and face a big bet on the river.

Appreciate your opinion on each street?