FineChina91
0 points
Hi,
Very new to this but thought i would give it a try. I have huge questions about mixed 3 betting strategies preflop. When we are creating them are we taking a big "batch" of mixed frequency 3 betting hands and using them all (at varying frequencies) from all positions? Or are we tightening/loosening that "batch" the later the opener. For example KQs in the BU 100bb effective vs a CO open (6max), i would say is almost always a 3 bet, or at least a high frequency one. Would i also choose to 3 bet the HJ/UTG with the same "batch" of hands just mixing the frequencies or would I limit that range of hands depending on the position.
Im saying this also with the assumption that i believe linear and polarised 3 bet strategies to be more exploitative strategies, so for this example somewhat not relevant. In this case with the example above, everyone is an unknown or good player.
Like i said very new to poker, even though I've been playing for a while. i quickly realised my incompetence after joining this site. So any help or comments would be appreciated.
Hi Peter Clarke, random question that was hoping you could elaborate on if you can of course. You made a small comment that made me think a bit, that was more or less "it is our value region that really dictates what we do with our strategy". Im really trying to get a grasp of how this game works and why solvers do what they do, which in a nutshell I would call game theory. This strikes me as a concept that I can use to gear my decision making and simplify very complex strategy. My questions, is this something you believe is worth further deep thought (am I thinking way too much about this/doesn't make a difference)? And could you elaborate or maybe lead me in a direction of where I can expand this concept and build it out so to speak. Totally understand if this is a bit much or obliviously something you charge clients for. Had to shoot my shot lol thanks regardless for the videos
Dec. 6, 2022 | 9:51 a.m.