Hey guys,

following hand made me rethink about a standard situation. Villain plays 33/16 over 135 hands. 3bet:4 - 3bet(BU): 9,1(11) I had a look in OddsOracle and now I wonder if I am analysing this right.

At first the Hand:

Prima, $0.25/$0.50 Pot Limit Omaha Cash, 6 Players

Poker Tools Powered By Holdem Manager - The Ultimate Poker Software Suite.



SB: $54.40 (108.8 bb)

BB: $51.50 (103 bb)

UTG: $113.49 (227 bb)

Hero (MP): $53.38 (106.8 bb)

CO: $61.14 (122.3 bb)

BTN: $36.99 (74 bb)



Preflop: Hero is MP with 6 A Q A

UTG folds, Hero raises to $1.75, CO raises to $6, 3 folds, Hero raises to $18.75, CO calls $12.75



Flop: ($38.25) 9 7 T (2 players)

Hero bets $34.63 and is all-in, CO calls $34.63

Since Villain seems somewhat solid by stats I didn't like this flop as I think it hits his range hard. Lets assume villain 3bets about 10% and we exclude AA from that since he would have GII preflop:

http://www.propokertools.com/simulations/show?b=7h9sTc&g=oh&h1=AcAsQc6h&h2=10%25%21AA&s=generic

would be easy. But lets say villains range doesn't include pairs or A high hands since the A high types plays well multiway and by 4betting my range is obv AA and an A high hand shouldn't call 4bet. same goes for pairs :

http://www.propokertools.com/simulations/show?b=7h9sTc&g=oh&h1=AcAsQc6h&h2=10%25%21AA%21RR%21A&s=generic

Now we only have 25%. On final thought I don't see myself 4bet-x/fold Aces but somehow I still felt like I have to post this hand and get some more thoughts.

regards