Villain 3bets about 25%, only ~25 hands in. He c/r flop cbets 75% so far and I've seen him do it with 45 on 367r. In that hand I 3bet flop with blockers and continued on a brick turn (gave me a FD tho) where he jammed and I had to call and got there. He perceives me as loose and bad because I "go all in with only a flushdraw".

I guess there is no other option than call.
Do we ever fold flop? Say he has 5% 3bet and we know his range consists of broadways mostly.

I hesitated to bet because I didn't want to fold my equity to a potential c/r, but then I figured he wouldn't c/r too often. I can't come up with many hands which do this, besides possibly QJ. c/jamming overpairs would be spewy and I think he would bet/call with wraps, KKQT, OP+FD etc. because I can easily check back this flop and he has some FE.

I can't make much sense of his c/c, I struggle to construct a range he does this with. Like I said, he would probably b/c his flushdraws since he almost always has something to go with them, at least FD+GS, more likely FD+(O)P, FD+OESD etc.
I don't expect him to have bare KT often, more likely something like KKT, KT+FD etc. so he would b/c these on the turn aswell. Since I think KT and flushes are unlikely I opted to call. Another consideration was his sizing, he had 62ish left and didn't jam. I think when he bets for value he would just jam to go for max value. Half pot seemed kind of fishy.