Run it Once, Twice or Thrice?
Posted by Jalo
Posted by
Jalo
posted in
Low Stakes
Run it Once, Twice or Thrice?
In a 6max cash game, if we run it twice to reduce the swings , are we losing EV?
What is optimal, twice if we are ahead, 3 times if we are behind?
Or is it truly Run It Once?
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it doesnt really matter if ur running it once, twice or 3 times.... ur just reducing variance and no ur also not loosing EV by it.
but u can still use it kinda in a strategically way. for example i would run it multiple times when im shot taking, or i would only run it once when i play vs a fish who is short stacked to make him reload for the case i bust him.
I never run it twice against a weak player because I wanna be the first to take his money. Against regs I m indifferent.
I suggest you study up on what Expected Value is. Not trying to be harsh but the fact that you immediately didn't know the answer to this yourself means that you don't understand what EV is in the first place.
I once heard some wisdom from Barry Greenstein's on this in a podcast.
He said that whenever you feel that you can handle variance better than your opponent, there is additional EV in running it just once. If you lose, this won't induce anything within you. If you win, this will induce tilt/bad/spewy play by Villain which in turns highers your overall EV in the game. On the other hand, if you are the one with the tilt issues, you should try to run it as many times as possible (best possible scenario being chopping based on equity).
And I may add that another factor we should take in consideration is the rake, if we run it twice and both boards are raked we should always run it once.
Agree for sure. But shouldnt be the conclusion otherwise flipped: If the pot will get raked only once, we should theoretical run it as often as possible?
Lets assume we have an edge over our opponents: ie. in AI situations we will more often than not wake up with the better hand.
(That should be what poker is all about for a winning player)
Wouldnt it make sense to even get this spot dealt 1.000.000 times to lower the variance of our single decision?
Its like playing a superior/winning hand x times and only beeing raked once.
Obv. just theory talk: In reallity it doesnt really matter(as long as we are only raked once) as the EV will stay the same.
So, as I've understood it so far (before even reading this thread fully): If you have like AA on an A39r board, you really wouldn't want to run it twice, would you?
Like this one. Why would v with KK run it twice with me? I'm certainly glad he did but it doesn't make any sense.
Yatahay Network - $0.10 NL FAST (6 max) - Holdem - 6 players
Hand converted by PokerTracker 4: http://www.pokertracker.com
Hero (BTN): $13.14
SB: $13.70
BB: $20.33
UTG: $19.09
MP: $12.00
CO: $16.31
SB posts SB $0.05, BB posts BB $0.10
Pre Flop: (pot: $0.15) Hero has Qs Qd
fold, fold, fold, Hero raises to $0.35, fold, BB raises to $1.40, Hero raises to $3.00, BB raises to $20.33 and is all-in, Hero calls $10.14 and is all-in
Flop : ($26.33, 2 players) 6d 9h 9s
Turn : ($26.33, 2 players) 6h
River : ($26.33, 2 players) 6c
Players agreed to run it twice.
Flop #2: ($26.33, 2 players) 5h Jd Qc
Turn #2: ($26.33, 2 players) Qh
River #2: ($26.33, 2 players) 8d
Hero shows Qs Qd (Full House, Sixes full of Queens)
Board #1 (Pre 18%, Flop 8%, Turn 5%)
(Four of a Kind, Queens)
Board #2 (Pre 19%, Flop 87%, Turn 100%)
BB shows Kd Kh (Full House, Sixes full of Kings)
Board #1 (Pre 82%, Flop 92%, Turn 95%)
(Two Pair, Kings and Queens)
Board #2 (Pre 81%, Flop 13%, Turn 0%)
BB wins $12.51
Rake paid $1.07
Hero wins $12.51
I guess he was legitimately concerned about AA. What a gorgeous group of four ladies, though huh?
I guess you are thinking wrong about this. EV-wise it doesnt matter at all. But from a variance point of view it makes sense to run it twice holding the better hand:
You will get two runs of beeing the favorite. That is like beeing raked once for making the right decision twice...
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