Hi, I guess many will wonder what I'm doing here asking such a simple question but I need to learn solid fundamentals somewhere.

This is not a question about if the play is good, I need to know if I'm understanding the maths correctly, it's a made up scenario.

Let's say there is a pre flop limper to my right, I'm on the button and raise 4bb, all fold except the limper who calls. I've got two high cards. Flop comes and I can only win by hitting one of my cards. Villain raises. I've got 6 outs only, about 13%.

I call the raise knowing that if I hit on the turn I can extract at least 8 X that call amount by the end of the hand to make it profitable. But that doesn't cover the pre flop raise I made, do I need to make sure that by the end of the hand I get 8 X that call plus my original 4bb raise to make it profitable? Or do I not need to recoup that 4bb PFR because it has its own equity?

I hope I have explained correctly. I know it is absolutely basic question but I've been studying a lot this week and I have nobody else to ask.