So if i raise in the CO and the BB flats, and the flop is Q74r, i bet and they call. on the flop it is said that i have a range advantage cuz i have pretty much the same nutty hands as him like Q7s 44 77 but i also have stronger top pair, over pairs, and QQ in my range. but when the turn comes lets say a blank 2, isn't it him with a stronger range now? he has way more pairs than i do, as i have a lot of like JTs KJs T9s KJo A5s (air/backdoor hands). We can apply pressure because we have the stronger hands, but why don't people generally think that on the turn the range advantage changed because of previous actions?