I'm trying to figure out how much you should bet with hand on the river if both players have the same range of hands (symmetric situation). I thought that perhaps you would use Will Tipton's optimal bet size formula for traps, but instead of the trapping frequency, you put in 1 - EQ(hand). I would expect the optimal bet size to be a bit larger than this since you can bet smaller with your nutted hands to balance your ranges and discourage your opponent from raising and turning your hand into a bluff catcher, but I gave both players AA-44 on 33222 in piosolver, and the bet size used by every value hand is significantly smaller than the optimal bet size for a PvBC w/ traps situation. I had the OOP player check 100%. I suppose the IP player has to bluff using hands that have a tiny bit of equity, so I guess this means the opponent continues less and therefore we get less value. So perhaps it's betting smaller to expand calling range? I don't think the OOP player is jamming more frequently than in a PvBC w/ traps scenario because the bet size piosolver was using for KK was being used quite a bit by AA for example. I tested for card removal effects, but that didn't seem to do the trick. Compared to a PvBC w/ traps situation, the opponent must be either raising more in comparison, which is doubtful since we'll have our own traps in each of our ranges, or our opponent continues less than the minimum defense frequency, but I can't imagine that the fact our bluffs (44) has a tiny bit of equity is the major factor here. Overlapping ranges could have some singificance, but in my scenario only KK and AA was betting, so surely the inclusion of AA wouldn't make the optimal bet size smaller then if we were only betting KK and some bluffs?