Polarised 3b ranges IP and depolarised OOP. Why?
Posted by Nabsuu
Posted by
Nabsuu
posted in
Mid Stakes
Polarised 3b ranges IP and depolarised OOP. Why?
I have pretty quick question. When I make preflop EV calcs wCREV, it suggests that I should have polarised 3b ranges IP and depolarised OOP (simply top X% of hands without any bluffs).
Why is that?
To me it seems very counterintuitive to have a range with no "bluffs" in it. Or to "valueraise" a hand which has less than 50% equity against villains calling range. I've used polarised 3-betting ranges from blinds both HU and 6-max, so if the case really is what CREV suggests I have big leak in my game.
I realise it's very possible that I made some kind of a mistake with my calcs, but I also remember Sauce speaking about having linear 3b range OOP in his newest vid. Unfortunately he didn't go into anymore detail about why :(
Sorry if this stuff is standard to you guys and thanks in advance for replies!
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