Overpair vs. Overbet all in on monotone flop
Posted by FlushRoyal
Posted by
FlushRoyal
posted in
Low Stakes
Overpair vs. Overbet all in on monotone flop
So I was playing .25/.50 the other day and picked up pocket 10's in position. I don't remember exactly where I was at the table, but I believe I was on the button and I 3-bet the original raiser in early position to $5 and they made the call. The flop came something like 9,6,3 all clubs. I have no club in my hand and my opponent checks to me. I bet pot to induce a fold from any hand that may contain a single premium club. My opponent reraises me all-in for 7x my original bet. Obviously this overbet is super polarizing. I knew I probably should've folded and took some time to think about my situation, but in the end made the call with my overpair lacking any club because I was having a hard time letting go of my hand. My opponent shows QJ of clubs and we lose 150 big blinds. What would be the appropriate way to handle this situation in the future? I feel like this was a really bad call on my part and I was kicking myself for a few hours after this. Just wasn't sure what to do because of the overbet and obvious polarization of the hand based on bet sizing. How would a seasoned poker player handle this size of overbet?
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First of all you should not bet pot on the flop. Your hand is really not that strong and is especially not strong if a lot of money goes in. Secondly, your opponent is not really polar here. His range is almost certainly either a hand that has you near dead (set, flush) or a hand that is flipping against you (AcQ or something). That's very different than the typical nuts or air polar situation.
I would probably bet small on the flop (check back seems fine too, but I like bet in most low stakes games.) If he calls then I'd probably bet one of turn or river on clean runouts. If he raises it will be somewhat sizing dependent, but I'd fold to a big raise. After potting the flop and getting jammed on it's a really clear fold.
Ok thank you.
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