I get very confused in those situations, especially when I am running bad and other regs putting lot of pressure on me.

My thoughts:

Villain will have all sets in his range and maby 76s (2 combos), because in the BB was a bad player. I am personally not coldcalling with 76s in this spot, but I guess we have to give them to him. 

When he raises my cbet on this kind of flop I think

1. I just cant give him any sets

- because he should at least give the SB the opportunity to call my cbet

- he is IP

- the Flop is so dry that he only needs to worry about 98s

2. I could understand if he raises with 76s, but

- they are just 2 comos of them

- is he really flatting this preflop?

3. Can I assume that the std reg on NL100 is raising with worst value hands like QQ/AJ?

- I think no

4. Can I assume that the std reg on NL100 is bluffing this flop 3way?

- NO! I mean HU on 532s maby or on 478s stuff, just boards where he can repp something but on J76r 3way?

I am really lost in this situations where Villain is just repping 1 or 2 valuecombos but not bluffing at all (normally). So whats your plan? What are your thoughts?

Thx for any advise