When you 4 bet the flop you're getting rid of all his bluffs, and if he's loose you have to assign him a value range on that flop and then do an equity calculator and see if you're ahead enough to make this a GII on this flop.

You have to realise how strong you look and so you can discount some top pairs that villain may raise the flop with. But reasonably his value range will be slow played JJ QQ KK, sets two pairs, 4h5h, 7h8h and you block top pair top kicker so thats the most likely top pair he would GII with.

I would prefer a call after he raises with AA and allow this loose player to bet all of his top pair hands maybe thinking you have a fd or AK thats stubborn, also allowing him to bet all his bluffs, where i think you can call down far more often than just ship it on the flop and be good.

Thats my input hope it helps!

Just call his raise. 3-betting the flop isolates you vs the top of his range and folds his bluffs. And I think you misunderstood the usage of Flopzilla in this situation. If it says you are good on this texture X% of the time, it means you are ahead of villain's whole range X% of the time. When he raises, he is repping a small portion of his range, so X% is not true anymore. I'm going to give you a silly numeric example: lets say villain gets to the flop, by calling pre, with 100 combinations of hands. So, lets say flopzila says you are ahead 80 of the time on this texture. That means that you currently beat 80 of his preflop combos that get to this flop. But when he raises, he is repping a small portion of these 100 combos. Lets say he raises flushdraws and sets. If he has, for example, 10 combos of flushdraws and 9 combos of sets, his raising range now beats you almost 50% of the time, and the other 50% he has great equity vs your hand. So the best play is to call on favorable runouts and sometimes exploitively fold when you know he wouldn't bluff his missed draws for example

Good points above I would say you overplayed this hand.