bvb ch/call range
Posted by thegrinder12
Posted by
thegrinder12
posted in
Mid Stakes
bvb ch/call range
Preflop open 57%
Flop: T77r
Flop ch range:
We will ch 457 combo's on the flop.
We should defend around 0.6*457=274 combo's vs a 3/4 bet
Now we have 277 combo's left, but this is include hands that can't be xcalling.
What should we do?
-checking more of our Tx hands
-ch same range and ch/fold more than 40% and only ch/call A8+/1p hands.
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Have a x/r range ? this will protect your flop checking range.
Sure, just forgot. Think I will cr some of my strongest 7x in this spot and some GS/SD. Still I think its very hard to xf less than 40%. Agree A8o is weakest hand we want to ch/call?
A2-A6s w bdfd will also be ok xc's i think.
Those hands have equal equity as A8o so think you are right.
Axs/A8o+/1p+ xc
xr= A7/K7 / somed gs/oesd
"We should defend around 0.6*457=274 combo's vs a 3/4 bet"
I don't see how you can claim this without understanding the EV of the Big Blind checking back a hand like 9To.
Also, why are you so confident that this part of the game tree (where you raise pre-flop, Villain calls, and the flop comes 457r, and you do not c-bet), should be modeled by assuming that
(1) Villain should not be able to bet (a hand like) Q9o, when you have checked this board.
(2) The PFR accomplishes (1) by defending at a frequency which would yield a 0EV bet from Villain w/ Q9o, if the betting ended right here (which it does not)?
?
Sorry I don't understand you. But we never want to fold more than 60% of our checinkg range right?(otherwise bb could bet any2) unless a flop hits villian's range hard
I think I can cb more hands as a bluf, bc our range is stronger(we have all overpairs, and our pfr range is a bit tighter than his call range).
I think we can add hands like K9s K8s QJs Q6s to our cb range. It's just very hard for bb to defend a lot on this flop with his wide range, and I think we still have a strong/balanced cbetrange(even if we add those K9s K8s kind of hands)
what af3 wanted to say is that if you fold more then 60%, yes villain will auto profit with some hands like Q9, but that doesnt mean that betting Q9 would be higher ev for villian then checking back that hand and taking free equity. so you maybe dont have to defend 1-A (oop)
I said what I wanted to say (above), and it's a fair bit (far) from this. Seems like a valid point, about checking back some hand(s), though.
what af3 wanted to say is that if you fold more then 60%, yes villain will auto profit with some hands like Q9, but that doesnt mean that betting Q9 would be higher ev for villian then checking back that hand and taking free equity. so you maybe dont have to defend 1-A (oop)
Can someone plz explain what is meant by 1-a thank you.
A = How often a bluff needs to work to break even, so 1-A is how often you need to defend/call so villains bluffs are breaking even.
I.E if he bets pot otr he wins 1 when you fold, loses 1/2 when you call :
A = (1/2) / (1 + (1/2))
A = 0.3333
1-A = 0.666
"A = How often a bluff needs to work to break even"
That's not actually what alpha is, but in the special case of the Nuts/Air game w/ no raising, that's what it works out to be.
Can we use 1-A in this spot, or are they to much variables ?
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