[0,1] Jam-or-Fold Game #1
Posted by AF3
Posted by
AF3
posted in
Mid Stakes
[0,1] Jam-or-Fold Game #1
Each player receives a number uniformly from [0,1]
The player without the button (Player X) posts a blind of 1 unit
The button (Player Y) posts a blind of .5 units and acts first
Player Y may either raise all-in to S units (jam) or fold, surrendering the small blind
If Player Y goes all-in, Player X may call or fold
If there is a showdown, then the hand with the lower number wins the pot.
So, immediately after describing the game, MOP states the following:
"When a player has two strategic options, where one of the options involves putting money in the pot and one of them is folding, putting money in the pot with any hand that is worse than a hand you would is always dominated. Because of this, the first player's strategy will consist of just two regions - strong hands with which he will jam, and weak hands with which he will fold. In the same way, the second player will call with his strongest hands and fold his weakest hands. Unlike other situations where we bet our strong hands along with the weakest hands, it does us no good here. In fact,if our jamming frequency is x, jamming with the strongest x hands dominates all other sets of jamming hands."
What is it about this game that makes the linear betting strategy for player Y dominate the polarized betting strategy for Player Y? Is it the loss of Player Y's ability to check?
Edit: This should hold when a player has only two strategic options of folding or putting money in the pot. Also, does folding weakly or strictly dominate not folding?
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