Lets just focus purely on turn play. Villain really rarely limps, and at least 50% of his limps he folds, so I decided to raise this hand pf. I know I could have had better hands but yea. On the flop, I don't think so I can x/c so decided to bet/fold again assuming villain range is weak. I still can have some good hands here in my range.

I put him on calling range: 6+,dd,34+,345+ and excluded pretty much all his sets.

No the turn, Villain can be quite aggressive, so I suppose he realizes that 4 is not good for my range, and having some weak hand most of the time I think his betting % here is really high.

Now I have 55 blockers here and decided to push. I know that 53 i somewhat unlikely in my range but what villain is going to do about it?

I put some number into pokerjuice and it turns out, that out of 6+,dd,34+,345+ range he is going to have 53 only 6% of the time! Other draw hands which could possible call my c/r like ddhh, 578hh:578dd, 789dd, 789hh etc are only 4% of his range. So it looks villain can call me only 10% of the time.

Obv when he called and showed 53 I though: f*uck I def shouldn't have been bluffing here when my range doesn't really allow it, and on top of it there are so many draws he still can call me (some of the with better eq that my hand) that that was bad. But when I did some math I think the answer is way more close. I think he doesn't have many Ah fd in his limping range, so its really hard for him to actually call me here with just a draw (some wrap + fd) but hes going to have them only 4% of the time.

What are your thought?