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Theory question about 1-A

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Posted by posted in Gen. Poker

Theory question about 1-A

When you are calculating 1-A in order to determine what portion of your range you must defend against a bet, do you reevaluate the calculation on every street? Or is it for your starting range for the whole hand? As an example, here's a hand I played where this came into question.

I open 77 from CO, BB 3-bets, I flat IP.

Flop: T83r, he bets 1/4 pot, I call. (Need to defend ~80%)

Turn: 8s, he bets 2/3 pot, I call. (Need to defend ~60%)

River: Qh, he jams for a pot-sized bet. Hero? (Need to defend ~50%)

So in other words, since my calling range becomes progressively winnowed down (eg. I lose bottom 20% of my range on the flop), I am calling turn with the remaining 60% of my range, and calling river with the next remaining 50%, correct? (Which is to say, much less than 60% and 50% of my preflop 3-bet flatting range.)

Thanks!

3 Comments

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Kalupso 5 years, 9 months ago

Answer is yes to what I think your question is. However it's not always/usually as straight forward as just doing the naive calculation.

There's an old video called improving on 1-A that could get you a step further. It's by Steve Paul.

Hoothoot 5 years, 9 months ago

Yes I've watched that video a few times, it's helpful alright. I'm just seeking clarification on this one technicality rather than watching it again.

Kalupso 5 years, 9 months ago

Maybe move on to theory stuff by guys like Ben Sulsky (toy gaming), Sean Lefort, Matthew Janda and Will Tipton to name a few. You also have Sklasky's theory of poker.

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