Theory question about 1-A
Posted by Hoothoot
Posted by
Hoothoot
posted in
Gen. Poker
Theory question about 1-A
When you are calculating 1-A in order to determine what portion of your range you must defend against a bet, do you reevaluate the calculation on every street? Or is it for your starting range for the whole hand? As an example, here's a hand I played where this came into question.
I open 77 from CO, BB 3-bets, I flat IP.
Flop: T83r, he bets 1/4 pot, I call. (Need to defend ~80%)
Turn: 8s, he bets 2/3 pot, I call. (Need to defend ~60%)
River: Qh, he jams for a pot-sized bet. Hero? (Need to defend ~50%)
So in other words, since my calling range becomes progressively winnowed down (eg. I lose bottom 20% of my range on the flop), I am calling turn with the remaining 60% of my range, and calling river with the next remaining 50%, correct? (Which is to say, much less than 60% and 50% of my preflop 3-bet flatting range.)
Thanks!
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Answer is yes to what I think your question is. However it's not always/usually as straight forward as just doing the naive calculation.
There's an old video called improving on 1-A that could get you a step further. It's by Steve Paul.
Yes I've watched that video a few times, it's helpful alright. I'm just seeking clarification on this one technicality rather than watching it again.
Maybe move on to theory stuff by guys like Ben Sulsky (toy gaming), Sean Lefort, Matthew Janda and Will Tipton to name a few. You also have Sklasky's theory of poker.
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