I was watching a YouTube video about Range Advantage, and had a question about an example given in the video.

The example was that at 100BB effective, a tight player opens UTG with 99+, AJs+, KQs, and AQo+.

Only the BTN calls with a range of 17% (22-JJ, most broadways and suited connectors, some suited gappers, A5s-A2s.

On an AKQr board, it was explained that UTG had a range advantage, which makes sense to me.

The next example was an 8s6h5s board, and it was implied that BTN had a range advantage.

However, when I plugged in the two ranges in Equilab, UTG's range had 61% equity on the 8s6h5s board.

Being that I am in the early stages of studying the game, I see 61% equity for UTG's range and naturally assume he would have the advantage. I was hoping someone could explain the flaws in my thought process (or maybe in the example) to me.