This might turn out to be a wall of text, but maybe somebody wants to chime in. Don't be too mean, I'm trying my best here as I'm just getting used to this and it's also just work in progress ;)

Alright, so here we go:

Preflop-ranges
Let's assume villain is a more or less competent reg, openraising ~ 21% in MP. As for my range, I was going w something like this: AA-TT,AKs-AQs,T9s,98s,87s,AKo-AJo,KQo,[50]A5s-A4s,KJo[/50], and for villain I went with JJ-77,AQs-ATs,KQs-KJs,QJs,JTs,T9s,[25]AA[/25] - I assumed villain might be 4-b AQo and trapping Aces some % of the time
Any initial thoughts on that?

Flopplay

Now, as we can see we are a favourite on that board:
de.pokerstrategy.com
Board: QsTs3h
Equity Win Tie
MP2 52.90% 51.79% 1.11% { TT+, AJs+, A5s-A4s, T9s, 98s, 87s, AJo+, KJo+ }
MP3 47.10% 46.00% 1.11% { JJ-77, AdAh, AQs-ATs, KJs+, QJs, JTs, T9s }

But as we look further it gets pretty clear how big of an advantage we have here:

Now, the first question I have is: Is it a viable conclusion that we we plan on betting our whole range smallish on that board given the fact that we have such a big advantage? If not: Where is the mistake in my thoughtprocess?

I'm gonna leave it at that for the moment, there's quite some more to the hand but I'm gonna wait if there's even something to discuss here :)