HI,
Does make sense to calldown anything if we know that villain underblufs? It means his ratio value:bluff is not by gto.

The main problem is:
1. How to find out from villain's stats that he bluffs enough to call??

Before ... I thought I had to call 33% of my hands to not be exploitable and it is all theory of poker. Is It true at all?

1. If villain blufs very little does make sense fold 100%?

2. In this situation villain have to bluff 25%. What if he blufs only 20%?? Does make sense call anything sometimes? Why?

3. What cards do you bluffs if you are villain?
   Thanks!