Ca someone confirm can whether or not this statement is correct?  When we are faced with a turn bet, we need to have more equity than the immediate price we are getting to call, assuming that our opponent will bet even some of his air on the river.  (assume neither hand will improve for simplicity.)  The more of his air he will be bet on river up to the point of being properly balanced, the more equity we need on the turn than the price we are getting.  So if we are faced with a pot sized bet on the turn, and think we have 33% percent VS his range, we have a losing call assuming that villain even comes close to betting the right amount of his air on the river?

I have seen the nuts/air game worked out where villain bets 2:1 bluff to value on flop, 5:5 on turn and 2:1 on river, I just want to be able to apply that concept the right way when we aren't dealing with all nuts/air and am understanding it the right way.

Thanks for any help.