Watching Leforts advanced theory topics and I have a question regarding optimal bluffing frequency. It's mentioned that for a 1/2ps bet the optimal amount is 25% (0.5/(0.5*2 + 1))... make sense. Where I get a little confused is when he calculates the number of bluff combos given we have 50 combos in our value range and 50 in our bluffing range. If we have 50 combos in our bluffing range and the optimal bluffing amount is 25% why is the answer ~17 combos instead of ~12 combos? (50/5)